UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

NEP 2020 proposes forming complexes of several small schools in a geographical area. One secondary school anchors the complex, and resources like teachers, labs and libraries are shared. This arrangement supports academic collaboration and efficient use of facilities. It is especially important where many small schools exist.

Option A:
A single primary school cannot provide the range of resources envisioned for a complex.

Option B:
This option reflects the policy’s description of complexes as clusters of schools working together.

Option C:
The model applies to all kinds of schools, not just private ones across the state.

Option D:
NGO-run boarding schools are only a subset of institutions and not the definition of a complex.

Afforestation establishes new forests that remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store it in biomass and soils, thereby acting as a carbon sink and helping to offset emissions.

Option A:
Incorrect; forests do not simply reflect all solar radiation, and their climatic effects are more complex than uniform cooling by reflection.

Option B:
Correct; it explains how planting trees sequesters carbon and lowers net greenhouse gas concentrations.

Option C:
Incorrect; even large-scale tree planting cannot eliminate the need to reduce emissions from sectors like energy, transport and industry.

Option D:
Incorrect; trees also emit water vapour and other gases; saying they emit only oxygen oversimplifies plant physiology.

The first letters are K, L, M and N, moving forward by one each time. The second letters are M, N, O and P, again moving forward by one. The third letters are O, P, Q and R, also advancing by one. The next term should therefore have letters O, Q and S, giving OQS.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it increases each letter of NPR by exactly one step: N→O, P→Q and R→S. This preserves the parallel +1 movement in all three positions. As it matches the transformation applied between each pair of successive terms, OQS is the proper continuation.

Option B:
Option B, OPR, keeps the first letter O but returns to P and R in the second and third positions. That fails to advance these positions as the pattern requires. Because not all three letters move forward, OPR does not fit the series.

Option C:
Option C, OQT, advances the third letter too far from R to T, a jump of two steps. The series shows only one-step shifts. This extra movement breaks the uniform transformation pattern, so OQT is not acceptable.

Option D:
Option D, ORU, changes the second and third letters unevenly and does not continue the simple +1 progression in all positions. It does not arise from applying the same shift to NPR. Therefore ORU cannot be the correct answer.

Biotic potential is the theoretical maximum rate of increase a population could achieve if resources were unlimited and conditions perfect. Carrying capacity is the upper limit of population size that the environment can support over time without serious degradation. Real populations grow more slowly as they approach this limit.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because biotic potential is not the realised growth rate; it is a hypothetical maximum. Carrying capacity refers to population size, not a growth rate.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it clearly separates maximum reproductive capacity (biotic potential) from maximum sustainable population size (carrying capacity).

Option C:
Option C is incorrect; these terms do not mean simple counts of deaths or births per year but broader ecological concepts about growth and limits.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because both concepts apply to all organisms, including plants, animals and microorganisms.

Statements B and D are the wrong statements about inclusive residential facilities. Statement A is correct because safety and accessibility for all genders and persons with disabilities are central to inclusion. Statement C is also correct as non-discriminatory admission and disciplinary practices are part of equitable hostel policies. Statement B is wrong because equity requires that rules be fair rather than automatically more restrictive for one gender. Statement D is wrong because amenities such as sanitation, lighting and security directly affect safety, dignity and inclusion. Therefore, B and D together are the wrong statements.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it selects only B as wrong and overlooks D. While B is clearly inequitable, D also misrepresents the role of amenities in promoting inclusion, so both must be marked wrong.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it chooses only D as wrong and fails to recognise the discriminatory assumption in B. Ignoring B would legitimise unequal treatment in hostel regulations.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it groups A, B and D as wrong. Statement A is actually correct in emphasising safety and accessibility, so including it among wrong statements contradicts inclusive principles.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it identifies both B and D as conflicting with the idea of inclusive residential facilities. It preserves A and C, which set out genuine requirements for safety, accessibility and non-discrimination.

The series is described by the quadratic formula aₙ = 3n²+2n+1 for n starting from 1. Substituting n = 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 gives 6, 17, 34, 57 and 86, which match the given terms exactly. For n = 6 we obtain 3·6²+2·6+1 = 108+12+1 = 121. Hence the next term must be 121 to preserve the same quadratic relationship.

Option A:
Option A, 111, does not equal 3·6²+2·6+1 and therefore fails to extend the polynomial rule consistently. It would require lowering the value obtained from the formula by 10, which has no justification in the structure of the sequence. Thus 111 cannot be the correct continuation.

Option B:
Option B, 121, is exactly the value produced by the formula aₙ = 3n²+2n+1 when n = 6. It maintains the same dependence on n that explains all earlier terms. Because the pattern holds perfectly when this value is used, 121 is the correct next term.

Option C:
Option C, 115, lies between 111 and 121 but does not arise from substituting n = 6 into the quadratic expression. Selecting 115 would break the neat quadratic pattern and make the rule inconsistent. Therefore it is not the right answer.

Option D:
Option D, 129, is larger than the value predicted by the formula and again cannot be written as 3n²+2n+1 for n = 6. Using 129 would lose the tight algebraic link between n and aₙ, so it is not a valid continuation.

Statements A, B, C and E are correct, while D and F are false. Nyaya does define perception as arising from sense-organ contact, and it distinguishes indeterminate nirvikalpa and determinate savikalpa perception. Some traditions also speak of yogaja pratyakṣa as an extraordinary type of perception. Illusory perceptions like shell-silver are taken as examples of error, not of valid pratyakṣa, and many schools explicitly accept perception as a pramāṇa, so F is clearly wrong. Thus A, B, C and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E, ignoring the reference to special forms of perception discussed in certain schools. Although A, B and C are true, they do not reflect the full range of pratyakṣa types mentioned in the item. Therefore A, B and C only cannot be the right answer.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since it adds D, which wrongly treats illusion as valid perception. In Indian epistemology, such experiences are usually analysed as erroneous cognitions, not as paradigms of valid knowledge. Including D makes this combination inconsistent with the standard account.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it omits A and includes D. Without A, the basic Nyaya definition of perceptual knowledge is missing, and accepting D confuses error with valid cognition. So B, C, D and E only cannot be chosen.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it groups A, B, C and E, capturing both the standard definition and the main subtypes of perception without conflating error with knowledge. It excludes D and F, both of which conflict with mainstream Indian logical theory. Hence this option matches the set of correct statements.

In-situ conservation means protecting species in the ecosystems where they naturally occur. National parks and wildlife sanctuaries maintain habitats and ecological processes, allowing species to continue their evolution and interactions. This approach preserves not only individual species but also community relationships and genetic diversity. Therefore, national parks conserving species in their natural surroundings are prime examples of in-situ conservation.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because zoological parks keep animals in captivity outside their natural habitats. This is an ex-situ strategy, useful but different from in-situ habitat protection.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect as seed banks store genetic material off-site. Although valuable for crop conservation, they do not maintain species within natural ecosystems.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since botanical gardens cultivate plants, often outside their native ranges and in controlled settings. Like zoos and seed banks, they represent ex-situ conservation.

Option D:
Option D is correct because national parks maintain natural landscapes and ecological integrity. They allow species to live and reproduce where ecological interactions and evolutionary processes can continue.

Downward communication moves from higher to lower positions in the organisational hierarchy. When a head of department gives instructions about exam duties to faculty members,orders flow from superior to subordinates. This fits the definition of downward communication.

Option A:
Upward communication would consist of feedback or reports going from faculty to the head,which is not the direction described.

Option B:
Downward communication is used to convey policies,assignments and performance expectations,all of which are implied in examination duty instructions,making option B correct.

Option C:
Diagonal communication crosses both functional units and levels,such as a dean emailing students in another department,which is not the case here.

Option D:
Informal communication may accompany the instructions but the stem clearly refers to formal duty-related messages.

Semantic barriers occur when sender and receiver attach different meanings to the same word or concept. "Evaluation" in education includes formative,diagnostic and summative processes,but students interpret it narrowly as final exams. This mismatch in meaning is a clear semantic barrier.

Option A:
Semantic barriers often arise from jargon,abstract words or differing conceptual frameworks. Clarifying definitions can reduce this problem,which fits the example.

Option B:
Mechanical barriers arise from faulty equipment,not from misunderstanding terms.

Option C:
Physical barriers come from environmental obstacles,not language meanings.

Option D:
Psychological barriers involve emotions such as fear,which do not explain the conceptual confusion here.

Each group is a block of four consecutive letters written in reverse order. The starting letters Z, X, V and T occupy positions 26, 24, 22 and 20, decreasing by two each time. The next starting position is 18, which is R, and the reversed block from R through O is RQPO. Thus RQPO continues both the backward step and the internal reverse structure.

Option A:
Option A, RSTU, is in forward order and does not follow the reversal rule.

Option B:
Option B, RQOP, is not a clean reverse of four consecutive letters (the last two letters are out of order).

Option C:
Option C, SRQP, starts at S instead of R, breaking the −2 start-step rule and also distorts the block.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it starts at R (two positions before T) and lists R, Q, P, O in strict descending consecutive order.

The differences between successive terms are 3, 9, 27 and 81. Each difference is obtained by multiplying the previous difference by 3, forming a geometric progression at the second level. The next difference should therefore be 81 × 3 = 243. Adding 243 to the last term 122 gives 122 + 243 = 365, which continues the pattern exactly.

Option A:
Option A gives 362, corresponding to a difference of 240 from 122, which does not match the expected value of 243. This breaks the geometric pattern in the differences. Therefore, 362 is not consistent with the rule.

Option B:
Option B offers 364, yielding a difference of 242 from 122, one less than the required 243, and again failing to preserve the exact growth in differences. Hence, 364 cannot be accepted as correct.

Option C:
Option C yields 365, which is 243 more than 122 and matches the predicted next difference in the geometric sequence 3, 9, 27, 81, 243. This keeps both the main series and the second-level pattern in harmony. Thus, 365 is the correct next term.

Option D:
Option D suggests 368, giving a difference of 246 from 122, which overshoots the expected difference and disrupts the clean factor-of-three rule. Therefore, 368 is not a valid continuation.

NEP 2020 sees ODL and online learning as powerful tools to reach more learners and help achieve GER targets. It stresses that such programmes must maintain high standards and achieve learning outcomes comparable to face-to-face courses. Regulations will ensure equivalence and quality.

Option A:
Discouraging ODL would contradict NEP’s expansion and equity objectives.

Option B:
This option captures the balanced view: ODL is to supplement and complement, not undermine, traditional HEIs.

Option C:
Completely replacing campus programmes with ODL would remove important aspects of holistic development emphasised by NEP.

Option D:
Restricting ODL only to foreign students is not mentioned and would ignore domestic needs.

In non-positional systems such as Roman numerals, symbols have fixed values that do not change with position. The total value is obtained by combining these fixed-value symbols using certain rules rather than place weights. Such systems are therefore termed non-positional.

Option A:
Option A accurately describes systems where there is no concept of positional weights tied to powers of a base. The symbol's meaning is fixed and does not depend on place value.

Option B:
Option B, positional, describes systems like decimal and binary where the position of a digit is critical in determining its contribution. This is the opposite of what the question describes.

Option C:
Option C, weighted, is associated with positional systems in which each position carries a specific weight, again contradicting the description.

Option D:
Option D, mixed-radix, refers to systems where different positions may have different bases, as in time representation (hours, minutes, seconds), and is not solely about position independence.

Anekantavada is the Jaina principle of non-one-sidedness, asserting that reality possesses many facets and can be viewed from different valid standpoints. It challenges dogmatic claims that describe things in purely absolute terms. This doctrine undergirds the Jaina emphasis on intellectual humility and tolerance. Therefore the many-sidedness doctrine in the stem is anekantavada.

Option A:
Option A, syadvada, is the doctrine of conditional predication that gives a linguistic and logical expression to the spirit of anekantavada, but it is not the more fundamental metaphysical thesis itself. Syadvada shows how statements should be qualified, whereas anekantavada explains why such qualification is needed.

Option B:
Option B is correct because anekantavada literally means "doctrine of not-one-sidedness" and is explicitly introduced by Jainas to account for the complexity and diversity of real objects. It anchors their broader logical and ethical outlook.

Option C:
Option C, saptabhangi, refers to the sevenfold scheme of predication used within syadvada and is even more specific in scope. It does not name the overarching doctrine of many-sided reality.

Option D:
Option D, paroksha, denotes indirect knowledge and belongs to Jaina epistemology rather than to their metaphysical view of the structure of reality.